What is your distinction between "private" and "personal" property, specifically?
Why do you seem to be arguing that property itself is responsible for the "haves" vs "have nots"?
Who has a superior claim to the production of another, absent a voluntary agreement? Remember that wage labor is not the worker's ownership of the produced good, but exchanging his capacity to produce for an agreed wage instead of the investment costs and risk of speculative production which is assumed by the employer.